Simon Geard
6/2/2016 10:40:59 am
The picture gives a good hint on how to approach this problem.
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ahmad
13/2/2016 05:29:48 pm
could you please explain How did you move from "a(x) > b(x) " into "and therefore that cos(sin x) > sin(cos x)"
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Paul
11/2/2016 12:42:08 pm
Thanks Simon. Always grateful for your comments. As ever, I'll be interested to see if anyone has another approach to the problem.
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Paul
12/2/2016 05:29:09 am
I have had a report from one of our puzzlers that posting here doesn't appear to be working. If that is happening to anybody else, then do email your comments about the puzzle to [email protected] and I'll happily post them for you.
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ahmad
12/2/2016 11:28:25 am
Let f(x)=cos(sin(x))-sin(cos(x)) , so
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ahmad
12/2/2016 11:40:38 am
I had tried to add the comments mentioned above by my personal computer but it didn't work anymore, and it just worked by mobile!!
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ahmad
13/2/2016 05:43:03 am
there is another solution by transferring from sum into product
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Paul
13/2/2016 06:22:08 am
Thanks you, Ahmad. I'm so glad you managed to post your solutions. Many Thanks. Paul
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Simon Geard
20/2/2016 06:38:20 am
thought I'd covered that aspect of the solution with the 'sin has a well defined inverse'.
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BMa02
4/3/2016 10:29:28 am
Cos (Sin (x)) > Sin (Cos (x)) because sin x and cos x always take values between -1 and 1. Cos (values in that range) will always be close to 1 and Sin (values in that range) will always be close to zero.
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Paul
5/3/2016 07:12:28 am
Thanks guys. I think time is up on this one for now. Great to read your comments. The new puzzle will be up very shortly.
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kennedy wanambisi
5/5/2016 04:54:25 am
good blog
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