Simon Geard
6/2/2016 10:40:59 am
The picture gives a good hint on how to approach this problem.
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ahmad
13/2/2016 05:29:48 pm
could you please explain How did you move from "a(x) > b(x) " into "and therefore that cos(sin x) > sin(cos x)"
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Paul
11/2/2016 12:42:08 pm
Thanks Simon. Always grateful for your comments. As ever, I'll be interested to see if anyone has another approach to the problem.
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Paul
12/2/2016 05:29:09 am
I have had a report from one of our puzzlers that posting here doesn't appear to be working. If that is happening to anybody else, then do email your comments about the puzzle to huntp@talktalk.net and I'll happily post them for you.
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ahmad
12/2/2016 11:28:25 am
Let f(x)=cos(sin(x))-sin(cos(x)) , so
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ahmad
12/2/2016 11:40:38 am
I had tried to add the comments mentioned above by my personal computer but it didn't work anymore, and it just worked by mobile!!
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ahmad
13/2/2016 05:43:03 am
there is another solution by transferring from sum into product
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Paul
13/2/2016 06:22:08 am
Thanks you, Ahmad. I'm so glad you managed to post your solutions. Many Thanks. Paul
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Simon Geard
20/2/2016 06:38:20 am
thought I'd covered that aspect of the solution with the 'sin has a well defined inverse'.
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BMa02
4/3/2016 10:29:28 am
Cos (Sin (x)) > Sin (Cos (x)) because sin x and cos x always take values between -1 and 1. Cos (values in that range) will always be close to 1 and Sin (values in that range) will always be close to zero.
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Paul
5/3/2016 07:12:28 am
Thanks guys. I think time is up on this one for now. Great to read your comments. The new puzzle will be up very shortly.
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kennedy wanambisi
5/5/2016 04:54:25 am
good blog
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